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Why do people automatically assume he meant the slavery era? Moore was talking to a black person, and his statement in the middle is an attempt to placate the person who asked the question, by acknowledging that America also committed wrongs in its past. So he wouldn't come off as just acting like America used to be flawless. The fact that he chose to bluntly say "slavery", and associate it with America's "glorious" past, instead of "well, some bad stuff that went down for black people back in the day", is actually surprisingly progressive on his part.
If he had meant that America was great when there was slavery, then he would've said that America was great when we had slavery. Not when we had "unified families". That's an era that extends to atleast the 1960's, by most conservative people's estimation. Before the deemed "dis-integration" of the nuclear family.
You cannot really judge a spoken statement in the written form, without hearing it in context. The whole "gotcha" games that are being played by both parties in America, are just ridiculous and intellectually dishonest.
If he had meant that America was great when there was slavery, then he would've said that America was great when we had slavery. Not when we had "unified families". That's an era that extends to atleast the 1960's, by most conservative people's estimation. Before the deemed "dis-integration" of the nuclear family.
You cannot really judge a spoken statement in the written form, without hearing it in context. The whole "gotcha" games that are being played by both parties in America, are just ridiculous and intellectually dishonest.
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