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I think the bolded part is the main thing here. I suspect (though I'm not putting it forth as a definitive fact, as I don't really consider myself qualified to say) that the percentage of the population that is gay or bisexual hasn't really changed substantially, only the openness of it. Even though it admittedly has a lot of flaws, Kinsey's studies in the 40s seems to suggest as much.That doesn't seem to make sense. That seems to suggest that there should have been more gay men in the 1920's than now.
I know people are more open about it today than in the past, but people had more kids in the past so the odds would have been greater to pop out 3-4 gay sons per family.