Elections Illinois judge removes Trump from ballot

Why should 2 essentially private companies get to decide who the president is? It’s because they are empowered by the constitution to do so is why. Just like states are empowered to make their own rules of who gets in their ballots for president. Each state has their own criteria for getting on the ballot. There is no national rules for such.

The Constituion does have (national) rules for president:
-At least 35 years old
-Natural born citizen
-Lived in the US at least 14 years

Additionally, the Constitution doesn’t mention parties, especially not the two party system we have today…
 
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The Constituion does have (national) rules for president:
-At least 35 years old
-Natural born citizen
-Lived in the US at least 14 years

Additionally, the Constitution doesn’t mention parties, especially not the two party system we have today…
Those are the qualifications on who can be president. Those aren’t the rules for being on a states ballot. Those rules are determined individually by each state.

Congress is empowered by the constitution. Congress is the one that shapes the rules that keeps the 2 party system in place.
 
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Yes Republicans are the threat to democracy.
 
People who support this will be the first to go in coming special military operation to denazify the United States.
 
Trump is or is not currently courting (and being courted by) MAGA candidates for offices across the Country (including elections officials) who profess the last election was stolen and who are willing the cheat to win this time?

The justification for this theft will be because the libs stole it last time. Even if they really didn’t.
 
Are there any white male judges left in the US?
The overwhelming majority are male. The overwhelming majority are white. You don’t think there are any. Why do you think you are so far off?
 
Uh huh, so "the same treatment", yet you have 0 examples of anybody it's the same as?
We've diqualified federal judges and congressman and the like. All those offices, by the wording of the clause, are treated the same as the president or any other federal office. Blame the drafters of the amendment for not including due process or believing it necessary.
In what world is "the drafters' intentions" by any reading for an individual local politician to override the voters, board of elections, stated requirements and all precedent to remove the right of the people to vote for presidential candidates?
Bro the electoral college exists lol. There are plenty of examples where the intentions of those who wrote laws or constitutional amendments override popular will. Voters are also free to write in their votes or protest vote.

Again, this is the originalist interpretation.
FFS, you all called it a "threat to our democracy" to ask for ID and signature verification, but it's all good for a single partisan to override everybody and kick off a candidate with 80% support among the state's primary voters?
I have no idea who you are talking about here. You seem to be arguing with ghosts rather than addressing the core point of a rather cut and dry matter.
 
We've diqualified federal judges and congressman and the like. All those offices, by the wording of the clause, are treated the same as the president or any other federal office. Blame the drafters of the amendment for not including due process or believing it necessary.

Bro the electoral college exists lol. There are plenty of examples where the intentions of those who wrote laws or constitutional amendments override popular will. Voters are also free to write in their votes or protest vote.

Again, this is the originalist interpretation.

I have no idea who you are talking about here. You seem to be arguing with ghosts rather than addressing the core point of a rather cut and dry matter.
That's not what I asked, as you know. Judges and congress members are not voted on in national elections. Yeah, obviously states and local authorities control state and local elections. If it's "the drafters intentions", then surely you'd have some examples of national elections.

And again, the state board of elections already did decide he was qualified, and a single us trying to override them too.
 
The Constituion does have (national) rules for president:
-At least 35 years old
-Natural born citizen
-Lived in the US at least 14 years

Additionally, the Constitution doesn’t mention parties, especially not the two party system we have today…

While this is true, it's difficult to ignore the fact that the US' founding fathers were very concerned about the potential reality that ordinary people could revolt and take over from the aristocrats.

In school, we are taught that 'tyranny of the majority' is some altruistic ideal that aims to protect the little guy. In reality, tyranny of the majority specifically referred to protecting the property and assets of aristocrats from being seized by revolution or civil unrest.
 
While this is true, it's difficult to ignore the fact that the US' founding fathers were very concerned about the potential reality that ordinary people could revolt and take over from the aristocrats.

In school, we are taught that 'tyranny of the majority' is some altruistic ideal that aims to protect the little guy. In reality, tyranny of the majority specifically referred to protecting the property and assets of aristocrats from being seized by revolution or civil unrest.
Not necessarily arguing at your point but individual rights are important. It’s a balancing act but the better countries have been Liberal Democracies/ Constitutional Republics which try to take the aspects of each. The majority decides a lot but everyone has bare minimum rights.
 
Judges and congress members are not voted on in national elections. Yeah, obviously states and local authorities control state and local elections. If it's "the drafters intentions", then surely you'd have some examples of national elections.
If they wanted to clarify, they would have clarified. That's literally how amendments work. That it is silent to any distinctions is key. You're reading into something that isn't there.

The only key question on the amendment is, is the president a holder of federal office? If yes, the amendment applies.

This is the core flaw of originalism, it forgives shitty laws because that's the way they were written 200 years ago.
 
If they wanted to clarify, they would have clarified. That's literally how amendments work. That it is silent to any distinctions is key. You're reading into something that isn't there.

The only key question on the amendment is, is the president a holder of federal office? If yes, the amendment applies.

This is the core flaw of originalism, it forgives shitty laws because that's the way they were written 200 years ago.
Yeah, except the opposite is true. "Engage in insurrection" and "due proces" is pretty cut and dry, and you deciding 200 years later that it "really means a 1 party dictatorship against voters, stated laws and election boards" is specifically the opposite. You think the "drafters intentions" was power centalized to a 1 party state where an individual person can override rules, laws, due process, the will of the voters and election boards to appoint national leaders? How much have you been drinking? Like the entire point of the thing was to decentralize power, which somehow you've interpreted as "centralize as much as possible".
 
"Engage in insurrection" and "due proces" is pretty cut and dry, and you deciding 200 years later that it "really means a 1 party dictatorship against voters, stated laws and election boards" is specifically the opposite.
There is no due process requirement for Section 3. There never has been.
You think the "drafters intentions" was power centalized to a 1 party state where an individual person can override rules, laws, due process, the will of the voters and election boards to appoint national leaders?
Do I think drafters who were racist, didn't want black men and women in general voting, and didn't want reps elected directly were OK with a lack of due process? Why, yes, I do.
Like the entire point of the thing was to decentralize power, which somehow you've interpreted as "centralize as much as possible".
The 14th Amendment, as does the 13th, centralizes power. They literally fought a war where a stronger federal government emerged. You realize the Southern states were federally occupied and essentially occupied territory at this time period, right?

Allowing the disqualification of candidates is also not a matter of centralization or not. IT's a matter of what the drafters thought of fitness for power.
 
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